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Posted on December 21, 2015 at 4:02 PM

The FDA announced today that it was ending a decades-long ban on gay men as blood donors.  This was greeted with huzzahs, as it appeared to lift an irrational and stigmatizing ban.  However, a gay man who wishes to donate must have been celibate within the last year, EVEN WITHIN MARRIAGE.  What gives here?  Are gay married men believed to be less likely to remain monogamous than hetero married men?  Is this evidence based? Am I missing something?

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